Brian Weatherson was at Rutgers recently giving a presentation on Bayesianism and Skepticism, during which he discussed this claim:
(B) It is impossible to go from not being in a position to know E É H to being in a position to know it just by receiving evidence E.
Professor Weatherson denies this claim, but I have trouble seeing why it's plausible in the first place. Let me know what you think of the following.
Suppose that someone justifiably and strongly believes (S): no material conditionals are true. This person, then, is not in a position to know E É H.
E: God says "Some material conditionals are true".
H: God spoke.
If our agent acquires the evidence described with E, then (given that their background beliefs include a high credence in God's testimony being trustworthy) their justification for believing (S) will be undercut (at least, in some possible cases), and they will be in a position to know E É H, as well as being in a position to know that E. But, as the only evidence they acquired was the evidence described with E, it looks like any instance of this will be a counterexample to (B).
(If making (S) a claim about truthvaluelessness of material conditionals seems problematic, just replace that bit with some other sortal, s, such that E É H falls under s, and (S) does not. So (S) will be of the form: nothing falling under sortal s is true.)
What are your thoughts?
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